Khalid Zaheer
“I am convinced about the veracity of my opinions, but I do consider it likely that they may turn out to be incorrect. Likewise, I am convinced about the incorrectness of the views different from mine, but I do concede the possibility that they may turn out to be correct.” — Imam Shafa’i

Does Qur'an Allow Husbands to Beat Up Wives? (2)

As per your below understanding, I think Islam supports Domestic Violence. Who will Administer the Administrator? I understand that Marriage is an institution where husband has an edge over wife as the husband is responsible for wife's "Nan Nafqa". But my point is that the mentioning of this beating concept in Quran is very abstract and vague and can not be taken into any court room for justice. This clearly made men everywhere in the Islamic world able to take part into this sacred duty to beat their wives in the name of religion. Nobody is able to stop this kind of violence.

For instance, last month a husband beat up his wife in public as according to him his wife disobeyed him. Please do not say that Islam allowed beating only with "toothbrush". I do not know any women who can get obedient with toothbrush beating.

Islam has given concepts on which we can easily do legislation and implement it like Nikah and Divorce and issues related to them. Do you think we can ever curtail domestic violence through legislation without breaching the rules of surah-al-Nisa?

Absolutely, we can. If you look at the verse the way I have presented it, we can legislate through the parliament that domestic violence is prohibited. If a case is reported, the court will verify if the charges against the wife were serious enough and the two conditions in the verse were satisfied. Wife's evidence can be taken as decisive in this case as God has done in the case of false allegation against her in surah Nur (24:8).

Given that wife-bashing is a norm even in the Western world, if you look at the relevant of surah Nisaa, it makes impossible for husbands to beat up their wives in anger.

It's quite strange that I am using the verse to prove a point which you are employing to prove the very opposite of it. Probably differences in perspectives and emotional sensibilities play an important role in understanding a text.

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