Assalam o Alaikum!
I hope that you will be fine. My question is that many years back my husband uttered word “talaq” to me twice at a time. After sometime he again did the same during rage. He repeated the same thing five times in intervals. We revoked every time. According to him he had neither knowledge about the process of divorce as it is related with instances. He had the knowledge that divorce is occurred if pronounced thrice at a time.Nor he says that he had any intentions while uttering this word.But two months back my husband pronounced word “talaq” three times intentionally.We have not revoked yet. It is to ask you whether divorce has been occurred on the basis of previous all times uttered divorce? Also last time he gave me divorce intentionally then is it his first instance?
Kindly help me out in this matter and reply me as soon as possible.
Answer
Assalamo Alaikum
Any statement given without intention of meaning it is an absurd (laghw)statement. The person making it should seek forgiveness from Allah Almighty but it doesn’t involve any legal implications. The Almighty says: “Allah will not make you responsible for the absurd oaths you take, but he would make you responsible for the ones you do intentionally. The compensation for it (absurd oaths) is to feed ten poor people with food of average quality …” (Quran; 5:89)
I therefore believe that all the pronouncements of Talaq your husband made unintentionally were not effective. He must feed ten people for each of these statements he pronounced. However, in the most recent pronouncement,in which his intention was there, he must reunite with you within three periods of such pronouncement. If three periods lapse, you can only reunite after performing a fresh Nikah.
And Allah knows the best. Allah Hafiz.